Can you quote me?
Adoptees Sought Their Roots, and Readers Reacted - The New York Times
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Cabinet approves Bill allowing adoption by same-sex couples
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One more thing to add is that god also floods the world and casts out adam and eve so that could also be construed as evil and disproportionate. But these are just my "guesses"; i don't believe in christianity bc of a philosophical key it provides but because i WANT to be saved from the heat death of the universe, from my sins, from the decrepitude in this world from all the tears that we cry all our lives bc i want JUSTICE for the kids who are today starving to death etc etc That's not quite accurate, Thomas.
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I suggest you read this article for clarity: Is the Bible's inerrancy limited to matters pertaining to salvation? Except for the fact that the Genesis author s was not making a cosmological claim--he was using figurative language to describe real primeval events. His description in Genesis is thus still true given that background.
It's by no means a consensus, and certainly not a magisterial teaching of the Church, that these specific passages should be treated metaphorically. There is a wide range of views on these "dark passages" that respect the biblical writings as inerrant and consistent with God's all-loving and all-powerful nature. For starters, I suggest you read this article by Dr. Matthew Ramage:. I think we're confusing two things here. The Genesis creation account is indeed mythical, but the objects it seeks to explain are not. One of those objects is the sky, which is believed to be a solid dome--not only in Genesis, but in Job and Isaiah as well.
So while the origin of the sky is told in mythical terms, the assertions concerning the nature of the sky i. As for the "dark passages" -- in which God is described as killing children or ordering genocides -- I'm aware there are elements of the Christian tradition that affirms those literally.
Christians including Aquinas have supported murdering people for their beliefs. Even brilliant people can be complicit in grave evil. It would be possible to find apologists for infanticide or genocide in most traditions that go back a few centuries. I'm assuming, perhaps hastily, that no-one here believes that infanticide or genocide is anything but an evil. I'm also assuming that no-one here will affirm that God is evil, engages in evil actions, or orders evil actions. If you want to bite the bullet and defend infanticide and genocide, I will need auxiliary arguments to support that particular premise of my argument.
Do I need to argue either a that infanticide and genocide are intrinsic evils or b that God is not evil and does not command evils? I hope the implication of Tim Staples's post and your comment here is not that Father Raymond Brown departed from established Catholic teaching in saying the following:. This leads us to the observation that the two narratives are not only different—they are contrary to each other in a number of details.
According to Luke and Mary lives and Nazareth, and so the census of Augustus is invoked to explain how the child was born in Bethlehem, away from home. In Matthew there is no hint of a coming to Bethlehem, for Joseph and Mary are in a house in Bethlehem where seemingly Jesus was born The only journey that Matthew has to explain is why the family went to Nazareth when they came from Egypt instead of returning to their native Bethlehem A second difficult is that Luke tells us that the family returned peaceably to Nazareth after the birth at Bethlehem Of the options mentioned before we made the detailed comparison of the two narratives, one must be ruled out, i.
I suppose we can argue the details in the text that lead so many scholars including highly respected Catholic scholars in good standing with the Catholic Church to conclude the same thing as Raymond Brown. But my main point here is to correct what I believe to be a seriously misleading implication—that faithful Catholics must accept the historicity of both Matthew and Luke's infancy narratives and also accept some scheme such as Staples's to reconcile them.
The passage you quoted from Dei Verbum does not bind Catholics to accepting that the infancy narratives in Matthew and Luke are historical accounts by eyewitnesses that can be reconciled with each other as two sets of facts. I will go out on a limb here and say that the consensus view of Catholic biblical scholars is that the infancy narratives are primarily theological rather than historical, and can indeed be seen as "teaching solidly, faithfully, and without error that truth which God wanted put into the sacred writings for the sake of our salvation," to quote Dei Verbum.
I am not quite sure what interest this challenge to "liberal" exegesis could possibly be to atheists. Anyone who reads Raymond Brown will find that although he may question the historicity of certain events recorded in the Bible, he never questions Catholic doctrine. What this post does is attempt to pit "conservative" Catholics against "liberal" Catholics by espousing a kind of Catholic biblical fundamentalism that is not endorsed by the Magisterium of the Catholic Church.
This appears to me to be a distinction without a difference. Despite the concept of the infallibility of the pope, it is not claimed that the pope is infallible.
It is claimed that he speaks infallibly under extremely limited conditions and only on matters of faith and morals. Given the view of the Bible presented here, one could argue that the biblical authors were much closer to being truly infallible than the pope, since the pope is limited to quite rare pronouncements on faith and morals, the biblical authors it is apparently being argued could not make errors of historical fact when writing scripture! It is definitely not claimed that the pope is an infallible historian. I clearly noted the difference.
Something or someone that is infallible cannot commit errors in the present or future i. Something that is inerrant simply contains no errors in itself. It has no possibility to commit future error because it is inert. Regarding the biblical authors, once again I would say this is a distinction without a difference, because they are dead! They cannot commit errors in the present or the future, but then again, neither can Pius XII, who made at least one infallible pronouncement. As a matter of semantics, I see the point of making a distinction between a text being inerrant and a pope being infallible, but in discussing the biblical authors, we are not discussing a text, we are discussing human individuals.
I see not much distinction between saying the biblical authors were "infallible" and saying they were divinely inspired so that the text they wrote were "inerrant. Whatever terminology one wants to use, I don't see how this helps in evaluating Tim Staples's contention that Raymond Brown's conclusions about the infancy narratives in Matthew and Luke are contrary to the Catholic faith, if that is what he intends to imply. It seems to me there is no explicit or implicit Magisterial teaching that states or even implies the infancy narratives of Matthew and Luke are two historically accurate accounts, the facts of which can all be reconciled.
If that is the intent of his post, I think it give a misleading impression of the Catholic faith. Raymond Brown was a faithful Catholic, and faithful Catholics are not departing from Catholicism if they agree with his opinions about the infancy narratives. Of course, no one is required to agree with Raymond Brown. Those who wish to believe that the infancy narratives contain more history than Brown believes are perfectly free to do so, and even to cry "oy vey!
But Catholic can react with an "oy vey! It can be crucial in some contexts. I don't think it helps you much in this one. If I read a document while assuming that the author did not make any mistakes, I am compelled to reach the same conclusions as I would when reading the document while assuming that the author could not have made any mistakes.
I don't see why I need a reason.
Read PDF NOT FOR THE LIKES OF US. The story of Lukes adoption and then some.
I do not presuppose, when reading any other narrative, that it originated with eyewitness accounts. If I come to believe that it originated as such, it is on the basis of compelling evidence. Why should I make an exception for these particular narratives? On the other hand, my wife and I have experienced some major events in our lives and at family get-together, when we recount them fondly, our stories don't jive in all the details.
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Yet, we both know it really happened. These things were not written down right away and they read that way. That is how I read the scriptures. He makes it clear He lives, I read knowing that. And yet, according to the Catholic Church, all Scripture was written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.